C
(Request
for OMB approval will be submitted when form is complete) OMB
No: 0915-0310 Expiration
Date: 12/31/2013 Public
Burden Statement: An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a
person is not required to respond to, a collection of information
unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB
control number for this project is 0915-0310. Public reporting
burden for this collection of information is estimated to average
0.85 hours per response, including the time for reviewing
instructions, searching existing data sources, and completing and
reviewing the collection of information. Send comments regarding
this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of
information, including suggestions for reducing this burden, to HRSA
Reports Clearance Officer, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 10-33, Rockville,
Maryland, 20857. Expiration
date: 12/31/2013
Sequence Number:
Date Received:
Center Identification
CIBMTR Center Number: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
EBMT Code (CIC): ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Hospital:
Unit: (check only one)
Adult
Pediatric
Recipient Identification
CIBMTR Recipient ID (CRID): ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Recipient Data
Date of birth: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Sex:
Male
Female
Ethnicity:
Hispanic or Latino
Not Hispanic or Latino
Not applicable (not a resident of the USA)
Unknown
Race:
White
Black or African American
Asian
American Indian or Alaska Native
Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander
Not reported
Unknown
Copy question 4 to report more than one race.
Zip or postal code for place of recipient’s residence (USA recipients only): ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Is the recipient participating in a clinical trial?
Yes - Go to question 7
No – Go to question 11
Study Sponsor:
BMT-CTN – Go to question 9
RCI-BMT – Go to question 9
USIDNET – Go to question 10
COG – Go to question 10
Other sponsor – Go to question 8
Specify other sponsor: ________________________________ - Go to question 10
Study ID Number: _______
Subject ID: ______________________
Copy questions 7-10 to report participation in more than one study.
Hematopoietic Cellular Transplant (HCT)
Date of this HCT: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Was this the first HCT for this recipient?
Yes – Go to question 13
No – Go to question 15
Is a subsequent HCT planned as part of the overall treatment protocol (not as a reaction to post-HCT disease assessment)? (For autologous HCTs only)
Yes – Go to question 14
No – Go to question 29
Specify subsequent HCT planned:
Autologous – Go to question 29
Allogeneic – Go to question 29
Specify the number of prior HCTs: ___ ___
What was the prior HSC source(s)?
Autologous
Yes
No
Allogeneic, unrelated
Yes
No
Allogeneic, related
Yes
No
Syngeneic
Yes
No
Date of the last HCT (just before current HCT): ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Was the last HCT performed at a different institution?
Yes – Go to question 22
No – Go to question 23
Specify the institution that performed the last HCT:
Name:
City:
State:
Country:
What was the HSC source for the last HCT?
Autologous
Allogeneic, unrelated donor
Allogeneic, related donor
Reason for current HCT:
No hematopoietic recovery – Go to question 29
Partial hematopoietic recovery – Go to question 29
Graft failure / rejection after achieving initial hematopoietic recovery – Go to question 25
Persistent primary disease – Go to question 29
Recurrent primary disease – Go to question 26
Planned second HCT, per protocol – Go to question 29
New malignancy (including PTLD and EBV lymphoma) – Go to question 27
Stable, mixed chimerism – Go to question 29
Declining chimerism – Go to question 29
Other – Go to question 28
Date of graft failure / rejection: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ – Go to question 29
YYYY MM DD
Date of relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ – Go to question 29
YYYY MM DD
Date of secondary malignancy: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ – Go to question 29
YYYY MM DD
Specify other reason:
Donor Information
Multiple donors?
Yes – Go to question 30
No - Go to question 31
Specify number of donors: ___ ___
To report more than one donor, copy questions 31- 62 and complete for each donor.
Specify donor:
Autologous - Go to question 46
Autologous cord blood unit - Go to question 35
NMDP unrelated cord blood unit - Go to question 32
NMDP unrelated donor - Go to question 33
Related donor - Go to question 40
Related cord blood unit - Go to question 35
Non-NMDP unrelated donor - Go to question 34
Non-NMDP unrelated cord blood unit - Go to question 35
NMDP cord blood unit ID: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ – Go to question 46
NMDP donor ID: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ Go to question 46
Non-NMDP unrelated donor ID: (not applicable for related donors)
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ - Go to question 38
Non-NMDP cord blood unit ID: (include related and autologous CBUs)
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Is the CBU ID also the ISBT DIN number?
Yes – Go to question 38
No – Go to question 37
Specify the ISBT DIN number: ____________________________________
Registry or UCB Bank ID: ___ ___ ___ ___ - If ‘Other registry’ go to 39, otherwise go to question 41
Specify other Registry or UCB Bank: - Go to question 41
Specify the related donor type:
Syngeneic (monozygotic twin)
HLA-identical sibling (may include non-monozygotic twin)
HLA-matched other relative
HLA-mismatched relative
Date of birth: (donor / infant)
Known – Go to question 42
Unknown – Go to question 43
Date of birth (donor / infant): ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 45
YYYY MM DD
Age: (donor / infant)
Known – Go to question 44
Unknown – Go to question 45
Age (donor / infant): ___ ___ Months (use only if less than 1 year old)
Years
Sex: (donor / infant)
Male
Female
Specify product type:
Bone marrow:
Yes
No
PBSC:
Yes
No
Single cord blood unit:
Yes
No
Other product:
Yes – Go to question 50
No – Go to question 51
Specify other product type:
A series of collections should be considered a single product when they are all from the same donor and use the same collection method and technique (and mobilization, if applicable), even if the collections are performed on different days.
Specify number of products infused from this donor: ___ ___
Questions 52 – 59 are for autologous HCT recipients only. If other than autologous skip to question 60
Did the recipient have more than one mobilization event to acquire cells for HCT?
Yes – Go to question 53
No – Go to question 54
Specify the total number of mobilization events performed for this HCT (regardless of the number of collections or which collections were used for this HCT): ___
Specify all agents used in the mobilization events reported above:
GCSF
Yes
No
GM-CSF
Yes
No
Pegylated G-CSF
Yes
No
Plerixafor (Mozobil)
Yes
No
Other CXCR4 inhibitor
Yes
No
Combined with chemotherapy:
Yes
No
Was this donor used for any prior HCTs?
Yes
No
Donor CMV-antibodies (IgG or Total) (Allogeneic HCTs only)
Reactive
Non-reactive
Not done
Not applicable (cord blood unit)
Was plerixafor (Mozobil) given at any time prior to the preparative regimen? (Related HCTs only)
Yes
No
Unknown
Consent
Has the recipient signed an IRB-approved consent form for submitting research data to the NMDP / CIBMTR?
Yes (patient consented) – Go to question 64
No (patient declined) – Go to question 65
Not applicable (patient not approached) – Go to question 65
Date form was signed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Has the recipient signed an IRB-approved consent form to donate research blood samples to the NMDP / CIBMTR?
Yes (patient consented) – Go to question 66
No (patient declined) - Go to question 67
Not approached - Go to question 67
Not applicable (center not participating) - Go to question 67
Date form was signed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Has the donor signed an IRB-approved consent form to donate research blood samples to the NMDP / CIBMTR? (Related donors only)
Yes (donor consented) – Go to question 68
No (donor declined) - Go to question 69
Not approached - Go to question 69
Not applicable (center not participating) - Go to question 69
Date form was signed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Product Processing / Manipulation
Was the product manipulated prior to infusion?
Yes - Go to questions 70
No - Go to question 88
Specify portion manipulated:
Entire product
Portion of product
Specify all methods used to manipulate the product:
Washed
Yes
No
Diluted
Yes
No
Buffy coat enriched (buffy coat preparation)
Yes
No
B-cell reduced
Yes
No
CD8 reduced
Yes
No
Plasma reduced (removal)
Yes
No
RBC reduced
Yes
No
Cultured (ex-vivo expansion)
Yes
No
Genetic manipulation (gene transfer / transduction)
Yes
No
PUVA treated
Yes
No
CD34 enriched (CD34+ selection)
Yes
No
CD133 enriched
Yes
No
Monocyte enriched
Yes
No
Mononuclear cells enriched
Yes
No
T-cell depletion
Yes
No
Other cell manipulation
Yes - Go to question 87
No - Go to question 88
Specify other cell manipulation:
Clinical Status of Recipient Prior to the Preparative Regimen (Conditioning)
What scale was used to determine the recipients functional status?
Karnofsky scale (recipient age ≥ 16 years) – Go to question 89
Lansky scale (recipient age < 16 years) – Go to question 90
Performance score prior to the preparative regimen:
Karnofsky Scale (recipient age ≥ 16 years):
100 Normal; no complaints; no evidence of disease - Go to question 91
90 Able to carry on normal activity - Go to question 91
80 Normal activity with effort - Go to question 91
70 Cares for self; unable to carry on normal activity or to do active work - Go to question 91
60 Requires occasional assistance but is able to care for most needs - Go to question 91
50 Requires considerable assistance and frequent medical care - Go to question 91
40 Disabled; requires special care and assistance - Go to question 91
30 Severely disabled; hospitalization indicated, although death not imminent - Go to question 91
20 Very sick; hospitalization necessary - Go to question 91
10 Moribund; fatal process progressing rapidly - Go to question 91
Lansky Scale (recipient age < 16 years):
100 Fully active
90 Minor restriction in physically strenuous play
80 Restricted in strenuous play, tires more easily, otherwise active
70 Both greater restrictions of, and less time spent in, active play
60 Ambulatory up to 50% of time, limited active play with assistance / supervision
50 Considerable assistance required for any active play; fully able to engage in quiet play
40 Able to initiate quiet activities
30 Needs considerable assistance for quiet activity
20 Limited to very passive activity initiated by others (e.g., TV)
10 Completely disabled, not even passive play
Recipient CMV-antibodies (IgG or Total) :
Reactive
Non-reactive
Not done
Comorbid Conditions
This section is optional for non-U.S. Centers
Is there a history of mechanical ventilation?
Yes
No
Is there a history of proven invasive fungal infection?
Yes
No
Were there clinically significant co-existing diseases or organ impairment at time of patient assessment prior to preparative regimen? Source: Blood, 2005 Oct 15;106(8):2912-2919
Yes - Go to questions 95
No - Go to question 132
Arrhythmia — For example, any history of atrial fibrillation or flutter, sick sinus syndrome, or ventricular arrhythmias requiring treatment
Yes
No
Unknown
Cardiac — Any history of coronary artery disease (one or more vessel-coronary artery stenosis requiring medical treatment, stent, or bypass graft), congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, OR ejection fraction ≤ 50% on the most recent test
Yes
No
Unknown
Cerebrovascular disease — Any history of transient ischemic attack, subarachnoid hemorrhage or cerebrovascular accident
Yes
No
Unknown
Diabetes — Requiring treatment with insulin or oral hypoglycemics in the last 4 weeks but not diet alone
Yes
No
Unknown
Heart valve disease — Except asymptomatic mitral valve prolapse
Yes
No
Unknown
Hepatic, mild — Chronic hepatitis, bilirubin > upper limit of normal to 1.5 × upper limit of normal, or AST/ALT > upper limit of normal to 2.5 × upper limit of normal at the time of transplant OR any history of hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection
Yes
No
Unknown
Hepatic, moderate / severe — Liver cirrhosis, bilirubin > 1.5 × upper limit of normal, or AST/ALT > 2.5 × upper limit of normal
Yes
No
Unknown
Infection — For example, documented infection, fever of unknown origin, or pulmonary nodules requiring continuation of antimicrobial treatment after day 0
Yes
No
Unknown
Inflammatory bowel disease — Any history of Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis requiring treatment
Yes
No
Unknown
Obesity — Patients with a body mass index > 35 kg/m2 at time of transplant
Yes
No
Unknown
Peptic ulcer — Any history of peptic ulcer confirmed by endoscopy and requiring treatment
Yes
No
Unknown
Psychiatric disturbance — For example, depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder or schizophrenia requiring psychiatric consult or treatment in the last 4 weeks
Yes
No
Unknown
Pulmonary, moderate — Corrected diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide and/or FEV1 66-80% or dyspnea on slight activity at transplant
Yes
No
Unknown
Pulmonary, severe — Corrected diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide and/or FEV1 ≤ 65% or dyspnea at rest or requiring oxygen at transplant
Yes
No
Unknown
Renal, moderate / severe — Serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL or > 177 μmol/L or on dialysis at transplant, OR prior renal transplantation
Yes
No
Unknown
Rheumatologic — For example, any history of systemic lupus erythmatosis, rheumatoid arthritis, polymyositis, mixed connective tissue disease, or polymyalgia rheumatica requiring treatment (do NOT include degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis)
Yes
No
Unknown
Solid tumor, prior — Treated at any time point in the patient’s past history, excluding non-melanoma skin cancer, leukemia, lymphoma or multiple myeloma
Yes – Go to question 112
No – Go to question 130
Unknown – Go to question 130
Breast cancer
Yes – Go to question 113
No – Go to question 114
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Central nervous system (CNS) malignancy (glioblastoma, astrocytoma)
Yes – Go to question 115
No – Go to question 116
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Gastrointestinal malignancy (colon, rectum, stomach, pancreas, intestine)
Yes – Go to question 117
No – Go to question 118
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Genitourinary malignancy (kidney, bladder, ovary, testicle, genitalia, uterus, cervix)
Yes – Go to question 119
No – Go to question 120
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Lung cancer
Yes – Go to question 121
No – Go to question 122
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Melanoma
Yes – Go to question 123
No – Go to question 124
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Oropharyngeal cancer (tongue, buccal mucosa)
Yes – Go to question 125
No – Go to question 126
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Sarcoma
Yes – Go to question 127
No – Go to question 128
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Thyroid cancer
Yes – Go to question 129
No – Go to question 130
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Other co-morbid condition
Yes – Go to question 131
No – Go to question 132
Unknown – Go to question 132
Specify other co-morbid condition:
Was there a history of malignancy (hematologic or non-melanoma skin cancer) other than the primary disease for which this HCT is being performed?
Yes – Go to question 133
No – Go to question 153
Specify which malignancy(ies) occurred:
Acute myeloid leukemia (AML / ANLL)
Yes – Go to question 134
No – Go to question 135
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Other leukemia, including ALL
Yes – Go to questions 136
No – Go to question 138
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Specify leukemia:
Clonal cytogenetic abnormality without leukemia or MDS
Yes – Go to question 139
No – Go to question 140
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Hodgkin disease
Yes – Go to question 141
No – Go to question 12
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Lymphoma or lymphoproliferative disease
Yes – Go to questions 143
No – Go to question 145
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Was the tumor EBV positive?
Yes
No
Other skin malignancy (basal cell, squamous)
Yes – Go to questions 146
No – Go to question 148
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Specify other skin malignancy:
Myelodysplasia (MDS) / myeloproliferative (MPN) disorder
Yes – Go to question 149
No – Go to question 150
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Other prior malignancy
Yes – Go to questions 151
No – Go to question 153
Year of diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___
Specify other prior malignancy:
Pre-HCT Preparative Regimen (Conditioning)
Height at initiation of pre-HCT preparative regimen: ___ ___ ___ inches
centimeters
Actual weight at initiation of pre-HCT preparative regimen: ___ ___ ___ pounds
kilograms
Was a pre-HCT preparative regimen prescribed?
Yes – Go to questions 156
No – Go to question 316
Classify the recipient’s prescribed preparative regimen:
Myeloablative
Non-myeloablative (NST)
Reduced intensity (RIC)
Date pre-HCT preparative regimen began (irradiation or drugs): ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
(Use earliest date from questions 161 radiation, or 166 – 315 chemotherapy)
Was irradiation planned as part of the pre-HCT preparative regimen?
Yes – Go to question 159
No – Go to question 166
What was the prescribed radiation field?
Total body
Total body by tomotherapy
Total lymphoid or nodal regions
Thoracoabdominal region
Total prescribed dose: (dose per fraction x total number of fractions) ___ ___ ___ ___ Gy
cGy
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Was the radiation fractionated?
Yes – Go to questions 163
No – Go to question 166
Prescribed dose per fraction: ___ ___ ___ Gy
cGy
Number of days: (include “rest” days) ___
Total number of fractions: ___ ___
Indicate the total prescribed cumulative dose for the preparative regimen:
ALG, ALS, ATG, ATS
Yes – Go to questions 167
No – Go to question 171
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify source:
Horse – Go to question 171
Rabbit – Go to question 171
Other source – Go to question 170
Specify other source:
Anthracycline
Yes – Go to question 172
No – Go to question 188
Daunorubicin
Yes – Go to questions 173
No – Go to question 175
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
Yes – Go to questions 176
No – Go to question 178
Total prescribed dose: ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Idarubicin
Yes – Go to questions 179
No – Go to question 181
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Rubidazone
Yes – Go to questions 182
No – Go to question 184
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other anthracycline
Yes – Go to questions 185
No – Go to question 188
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other anthracycline:
Bleomycin (BLM, Blenoxane)
Yes – Go to questions 189
No – Go to question 191
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Busulfan (Myleran)
Yes – Go to questions 192
No – Go to question 197
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify administration:
Oral
IV
Both
Were pharmacokinetics performed to determine preparative regimen drug dosing?
Yes – Go to question 196
No – Go to question 197
Specify the target AUC: ___ ___ ___ ___ µMol x min/L
Carboplatin
Yes – Go to questions 198
No – Go to question 202
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Were pharmacokinetics performed to determine preparative regimen drug dosing?
Yes – Go to question 201
No – Go to question 202
Specify the target AUC: ___ ___ ___mg/mL/minute
Cisplatin (Platinol, CDDP)
Yes – Go to questions 203
No – Go to question 205
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Cladribine (2-CdA, Leustatin)
Yes – Go to questions 206
No – Go to question 208
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Corticosteroids (excluding anti-nausea medication)
Yes – Go to question 209
No – Go to question 222
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
Yes – Go to questions 210
No – Go to question 212
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Prednisone
Yes – Go to questions 213
No – Go to question 215
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Dexamethasone
Yes – Go to questions 216
No – Go to question 218
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other corticosteroid
Yes – Go to questions 219
No – Go to question 222
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other corticosteroid:
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
Yes – Go to questions 223
No – Go to question 225
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Cytarabine (Ara-C)
Yes – Go to questions 226
No – Go to question 228
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Etoposide (VP-16, VePesid)
Yes – Go to questions 229
No – Go to question 231
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Fludarabine
Yes – Go to questions 232
No – Go to question 234
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Ifosfamide
Yes – Go to questions 235
No – Go to question 237
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Intrathecal chemotherapy
Yes – Go to question 238
No – Go to question 251
Intrathecal cytarabine (IT Ara-C)
Yes – Go to questions 239
No – Go to question 241
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Intrathecal methotrexate (IT MTX)
Yes – Go to questions 242
No – Go to question 244
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Intrathecal thiotepa
Yes – Go to questions 245
No – Go to question 247
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other intrathecal drug
Yes – Go to questions 248
No – Go to question 251
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other intrathecal drug:
Melphalan (L-Pam)
Yes – Go to questions 252
No – Go to question 255
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify administration:
Oral
IV
Both
Mitoxantrone
Yes – Go to questions 256
No – Go to question 258
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Monoclonal antibody
Yes – Go to question 259
No – Go to question 279
Radio labeled mAb
Yes – Go to questions 250
No – Go to question 266
Total prescribed dose of radioactive component: ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ mCi
MBq
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify radio labeled mAb:
Tositumomab (Bexxar)
Yes
No
Ibritumomab tiuxetan (Zevalin)
Yes
No
Other radio labeled mAb
Yes – Go to question 265
No – Go to question 266
Specify radio labeled mAb:
Alemtuzumab (Campath)
Yes – Go to questions 267
No – Go to question 269
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Rituximab (Rituxan, anti CD20)
Yes – Go to questions 270
No – Go to question 272
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Gemtuzumab (Mylotarg, anti CD33)
Yes – Go to questions 273
No – Go to question 275
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other mAb
Yes – Go to questions 276
No – Go to question 279
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other mAb:
Nitrosourea
Yes – Go to question 280
No – Go to question 290
Carmustine (BCNU)
Yes – Go to questions 281
No – Go to question 283
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
CCNU (Lomustine)
Yes – Go to questions 284
No – Go to question 286
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other nitrosourea
Yes – Go to questions 287
No – Go to question 290
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other nitrosourea:
Paclitaxel (Taxol, Xyotax)
Yes – Go to questions 291
No – Go to question 293
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Teniposide (VM26)
Yes – Go to questions 294
No – Go to question 296
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Thiotepa
Yes – Go to questions 297
No – Go to question 299
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Treosulfan
Yes – Go to questions 300
No – Go to question 302
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Yes – Go to questions 303
No – Go to question 312
Dasatinib (Sprycel)
Yes – Go to questions 304
No – Go to question 306
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Imatinib mesylate (STI571, Gleevec)
Yes – Go to questions 307
No – Go to question 309
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Nilotinib
Yes – Go to questions 310
No – Go to question 312
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Other drug
Yes – Go to questions 313
No – Go to question 316
Total prescribed dose ___ ___ ___ ___ mg/m2
mg/kg
Date started: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify other drug:
GVHD Prophylaxis
This section is to be completed for allogeneic HCTs only; autologous HCTs continue with question 342.
Was GVHD prophylaxis planned / given?
Yes - Go to questions 317
No - Go to question 342
Specify:
ALG, ALS, ATG, ATS
Yes – Go to question 318
No – Go to question 320
Specify source:
Horse – Go to question 320
Rabbit – Go to question 320
Other source – Go to question 319
Specify other source:
Corticosteroids (systemic)
Yes
No
Cyclosporine (CSA, Neoral, Sandimmune)
Yes
No
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
Yes
No
ECP (extra-corporeal photopheresis)
Yes
No
FK 506 (Tacrolimus, Prograf)
Yes
No
In vivo monoclonal antibody
Yes – Go to question 326
No – Go to question 333
Specify in vivo monoclonal antibody:
Alemtuzumab (Campath)
Yes
No
Anti CD 25 (Zenapax, Daclizumab, AntiTAC)
Yes – Go to question 328
No – Go to question 329
Specify:
Etanercept (Enbrel)
Yes
No
Infliximab (Remicade)
Yes
No
Other in vivo monoclonal antibody
Yes – Go to question 332
No – Go to question 333
Specify antibody:
In vivo immunotoxin
Yes – Go to question 334
No – Go to question 335
Specify immunotoxin:
Methotrexate (MTX) (Amethopterin)
Yes
No
Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) (CellCept)
Yes
No
Sirolimus (Rapamycin, Rapamune)
Yes
No
Blinded randomized trial
Yes – Go to question 339
No – Go to question 340
Specify trial agent:
Other agent
Yes – Go to question 341
No – Go to question 342
Specify other agent:
Other Toxicity Modifying Regimen
Optional for non-U.S. Centers
Was KGF (palifermin, Kepivance) started or is there a plan to use it?
Yes
No
Masked trial
Post-HCT Disease Therapy Planned as of Day 0
Is this HCT part of a planned multiple (sequential) graft / HCT protocol?
Yes
No
Is additional post-HCT therapy planned?
Yes - Go to questions 345
No - Go to question 356
Questions 345 – 355 are optional for non-U.S. centers
Bortezomib (Velcade)
Yes
No
Cellular therapy (e.g. DCI, DLI)
Yes
No
Dexamethosone
Yes
No
Intrathecal chemotherapy
Yes
No
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (e.g. imatinib mesylate)
Yes
No
Lenalidomide (Revlimid)
Yes
No
Local radiotherapy
Yes
No
Rituximab (Rituxan, Mabthera)
Yes
No
Thalidomide (Thalomid)
Yes
No
Other planned therapy
Yes – Go to question 355
No – Go to question 356
Specify other planned therapy:
Primary Disease for HCT
Date of diagnosis of primary disease for HCT: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
What was the primary disease for which the HCT was performed?
Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML or ANLL) (10) - Go to question 358
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) (20) - Go to question 419
Other acute leukemia (80) - Go to question 462
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) (40) - Go to question 466
Myelodysplastic
(MDS) / myeloproliferative (MPN) diseases (50)
(Please classify all pre-leukemias)
(If recipient has
transformed to AML, indicate AML as the primary disease) - Go
to question 480
Other leukemia (30) (includes CLL) - Go to question 573
Hodgkin lymphoma (150) - Go to question 580
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (100) - Go to question 583
Multiple myeloma / plasma cell disorder (PCD) (170) - Go to question 589
Solid tumors (200) - Go to question 621
Severe aplastic anemia (300) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease) - Go to question 622
Inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function (310) - Go to question 623
Disorders of the immune system (400) - Go to question 624
Inherited abnormalities of platelets (500) - Go to question 625
Inherited disorders of metabolism (520) - Go to question 626
Histiocytic disorders (570) - Go to question 627
Autoimmune diseases (600) - Go to question 628
Other disease (900) - Go to question 629
Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)
Specify the AML classification:
AML with t(9;11) (p22;q23); MLLT 3-MLL (5)
AML with t(6;9) (p23;q24); DEK-NUP214 (6)
AML with inv(3) (q21;q26.2) or t(3;3) (q21;q26.2); RPN1-EVI1 (7)
AML (megakaryoblastic) with t(1;22) (p13;q13); RBM15-MKL1 (8)
AML with t(8;21); (q22; q22); RUNX1/RUNX1T1 (281)
AML with inv(16); (p13;1q22) or t(16;16) (p13.1; q22); CBFB/MYH11 (282)
APL with t(15;17); (q22;q12); RARA;PML (283)
AML with 11q23 (MLL) abnormalities (i.e., t(4;11), t(6;11), t(9;11), t(11;19)) (284)
AML with myelodysplasia – related changes (285)
Therapy related AML (t-AML) (9)
Myeloid sarcoma (295)
Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm (296)
AML or ANLL, not otherwise specified (280)
AML with multi-lineage dysplasia (285)
AML, minimally differentiated (M0) (286)
AML without maturation (M1) (287)
AML with maturation (M2) (288)
Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4) (289)
Acute monoblastic / acute monocytic leukemia (M5) (290)
Acute erythroid leukemia (erythroid / myeloid and pure erythroleukemia) (M6) (291)
Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (M7) (292)
Acute basophilic leukemia (293)
Acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis (294)
Did AML transform from MDS or MPN?
Yes – Also complete Disease Classification questions 480-527
No
Was the disease (AML) therapy related?
Yes
No
Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
Yes - Go to question 362
No - Go to question 364
Unknown - Go to question 364
Specify condition:
Bloom syndrome - Go to question 364
Down syndrome - Go to question 364
Fanconi anemia - Go to question 364 - Also complete CIBMTR Form 2029 – FAN
Neurofibromatosis type 1 - Go to question 364
Other condition - Go to question 363
Specify other condition: __________________________________________
Were cytogenetics tested (conventional or FISH)?
Yes - Go to question 365
No - Go to question 402
Unknown - Go to question 402
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 366
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 402
No abnormalities - Go to question 402
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Monosomy
–5
Yes
No
–7
Yes
No
–17
Yes
No
–18
Yes
No
–X
Yes
No
–Y
Yes
No
Trisomy
+4
Yes
No
+8
Yes
No
+11
Yes
No
+13
Yes
No
+14
Yes
No
+21
Yes
No
+22
Yes
No
Translocation
t(3;3)
Yes
No
t(6;9)
Yes
No
t(8;21)
Yes
No
t(9;11)
Yes
No
t(9;22)
Yes
No
t(15;17) and variants
Yes
No
t(16;16)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q–
Yes
No
del(5q) / 5q–
Yes
No
del(7q) / 7q–
Yes
No
del(9q) / 9q–
Yes
No
del(11q) / 11q–
Yes
No
del(16q) / 16q–
Yes
No
del(17q) / 17q–
Yes
No
del(20q) / 20q–
Yes
No
del(21q) / 21q–
Yes
No
Inversion
inv(3)
Yes
No
inv(16)
Yes
No
Other
(11q23) any abnormality
Yes
No
12p any abnormality
Yes
No
Complex - ≥ 3 distinct abnormalities
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes - Go to question 401
No - Go to question 402
Specify other abnormality: __________________________________
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR)?
Yes – Go to question 403
No – Go to question 412
Unknown – Go to question 412
Specify molecular markers identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
CEBPA
Positive
Negative
Not done
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
Positive
Negative
Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
Positive
Negative
Not done
IDH1
Positive
Negative
Not done
IDH2
Positive
Negative
Not done
KIT
Positive
Negative
Not done
NPM1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive- Go to question 411
Negative- Go to question 411
Not done- Go to question 412
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Status at transplantation
What was the disease status (based on hematologic test results)?
Primary induction failure (PIF) – Go to question 418
1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) – Go to question 413
2nd complete remission – Go to question 413
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 413
1st relapse – Go to question 417
2nd relapse – Go to question 417
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 417
No treatment – Go to question 418
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve CR?
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in molecular remission?
Yes
No
Unknown
Not applicable
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes
No
Unknown
Not applicable
Was the recipient in cytogenetic remission?
Yes – Go to question 418
No – Go to question 418
Unknown – Go to question 418
Not applicable– Go to question 418
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
Specify ALL classification:
t(9;22)(q34;q11); BCR/ABL1 (192)
t(v;11q23); MLL rearranged (193)
t(1;19)(q23;p13) TCF3-PBX1 (194)
t(12;21) (p12;q22); TEL-AML1 (195)
t(5;14) (q31;q32); IL3-IGH (81)
Hyperdiploidy (51-65 chromosomes) (82)
Hypodiploidy (<45 chromosomes) (83)
B-cell ALL, NOS {L1/L2} (191)
T-cell lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma (Precursor T-cell ALL) (196)
ALL, NOS (190)
Were tyrosine kinase inhibitors (i.e.imatinib mesylate) given for pre-HCT therapy at any time prior to start of the preparative regimen?
Yes
No
Unknown
Were cytogenetics tested (conventional or FISH)?
Yes - Go to question 422
No - Go to question 450
Unknown - Go to question 450
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 423
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 450
No abnormalities - Go to question 450
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen.
Monosomy
–7
Yes
No
Trisomy
+4
Yes
No
+8
Yes
No
+17
Yes
No
+21
Yes
No
Translocation
t(1;19)
Yes
No
t(2;8)
Yes
No
t(4;11)
Yes
No
t(5;14)
Yes
No
t(8;14)
Yes
No
t(8;22)
Yes
No
t(9;22)
Yes
No
t(10;14)
Yes
No
t(11;14)
Yes
No
t(12;21)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(6q) / 6q–
Yes
No
del(9p) / 9p–
Yes
No
del(12p) / 12p–
Yes
No
Addition
add(14q)
Yes
No
Other
(11q23) any abnormality
Yes
No
9p any abnormality
Yes
No
12p any abnormality
Yes
No
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Yes
No
Hypodiploid (< 46)
Yes
No
Complex - ≥3 distinct abnormalities
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes - Go to question 449
No - Go to question 450
Specify other abnormality: ___________________________
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR)?
Yes – Go to question 451
No – Go to question 455
Unknown – Go to question 455
Specify molecular markers identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
BCR / ABL
Positive
Negative
Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive – Go to question 454
Negative – Go to question 454
Not done – Go to question 455
Specify other molecular marker:
Status at Transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematologic test results)?
Primary induction failure – Go to question 461
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse) – Go to question 456
2nd complete remission – Go to question 456
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 456
1st relapse – Go to question 460
2nd relapse – Go to question 460
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 460
No treatment – Go to question 461
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve CR?
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in molecular remission?
Yes
No
Unknown
Not applicable
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes
No
Unknown
Not applicable
Was the recipient in cytogenetic remission?
Yes – Go to question 461
No – Go to question 461
Unknown – Go to question 461
Not applicable – Go to question 461
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Other Acute Leukemia
Specify other acute leukemia classification:
Acute undifferentiated leukemia (31) - Go to question 464
Biphenotypic, bilineage or hybrid leukemia (32) - Go to question 464
Acute mast cell leukemia (33) - Go to question 464
Other acute leukemia (89) - Go to question 463
Specify other acute leukemia:
Status at Transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematologic test results)?
Primary induction failure
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse)
2nd complete remission
≥ 3rd complete remission
1st relapse
2nd relapse
≥3rd relapse
No treatment
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
Philadelphia chromosome+, Ph+, t(9;22)(q34;q11), or variant OR bcr/abl+
Specify CML classification:
Ph+ / bcr+ (41)
Ph+ / bcr- (42)
Ph+ / bcr unknown (43)
Ph- / bcr+ (44)
Ph unknown / bcr+ (47)
Was therapy given prior to this HCT?
Yes - Go to questions 468
No - Go to question 474
Combination chemotherapy
Yes
No
Hydroxyurea (HU)
Yes
No
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (e.g.imatinib mesylate, dasatinib, nilotinib)
Yes
No
Interferon-α (Intron, Roferon)
Yes
No
Other therapy
Yes - Go to question 473
No - Go to question 44
Specify other therapy: ______________________________________
What was the disease status at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen?
Complete hematologic remission - Go to questions 475
First chronic phase – Go to question 479
Second or greater chronic phase – Go to question 478
Accelerated phase - Go to question 478
Blast crisis - Go to question 478
Specify remission:
Cytogenetic complete remission (Ph negative)
Yes
No
Unknown
Molecular complete remission (BCR / ABL negative)
Yes
No
Unknown
CML disease status before treatment that achieved this CR:
Chronic phase - Go to question 478
Accelerated phase - Go to question 478
Blast phase - Go to question 478
Number
1st - Go to question 476
2nd - Go to question 476
3rd or higher - Go to question 476
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Myelodysplastic (MDS) / Myeloproliferative (MPN) Diseases
What was the MDS / MPN classification at diagnosis? – If transformed to AML, indicate AML as primary disease; also complete Disease Classification questions 358-418
Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51)
Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62)
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64)
Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68)
Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66)
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50)
Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (165)
Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166)
Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58)
Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57)
Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167)
Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60)
Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54)
Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML/JCML) (36) – Go to First Name
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, Ph-/bcr/abl- {CML, NOS} (45) - Go to question 577
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, Ph-/bcr unknown {CML, NOS} (46) - Go to question 577
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, Ph unknown/bcr- {CML, NOS} (48) - Go to question 577
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia, Ph unknown/bcr unknown {CML, NOS} (49) - Go to question 577
Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69)
Was the disease (MDS/MPN) therapy related?
Yes
No
Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
Yes – Go to question 483
No – Go to question 485
Unknown – Go to question 485
Specify condition:
Aplastic anemia – Go to question 485- Also complete CIBMTR form 2028 - APL
Bloom syndrome – Go to question 485
Down syndrome – Go to question 485
Fanconi anemia – – Go to question 485 - Also complete CIBMTR form 2029 - FAN
Other condition – Go to question 484
Specify other condition:
Laboratory Studies at Diagnosis of MDS
WBC
Known – Go to question 486
Unknown– Go to question 487
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Hemoglobin
Known – Go to question 488
Unknown – Go to question 490
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ g/dL
g/L
mmol/L
Was RBC transfused < 30 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Platelets
Known – Go to question 491
Unknown – Go to question 493
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Were platelets transfused < 7 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Neutrophils
Known – Go to question 494
Unknown – Go to question 495
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
Known – Go to question 496
Unknown – Go to question 497
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (conventional or FISH)?
Yes – Go to question 498
No – Go to question 525
Unknown – Go to question 525
Results of test:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 499
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 525
No abnormalities – Go to question 525
Specify abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
Yes
No
–7
Yes
No
–13
Yes
No
–20
Yes
No
–Y
Yes
No
Trisomy
+8
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(1;3)
Yes
No
t(2;11)
Yes
No
t(3;3)
Yes
No
t(3;21)
Yes
No
t(6;9)
Yes
No
t(11;16)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
Yes
No
del(5q) / 5q-
Yes –
No
del(7q) / 7q-
Yes
No
del(9q) / 9q-
Yes
No
del(11q) / 11q-
Yes
No
del(12p) / 12p-
Yes
No
del(13q) / 13q-
Yes
No
del(20q) / 20q-
Yes
No
Inversion
inv(3)
Yes
No
Other
i17q
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes – Go to question 524
No – Go to question 525
Specify other abnormality:
Did the recipient progress or transform to a different MDS / MPN subtype between diagnosis and the start of the preparative regimen?
Yes – Go to question 526
No – Go to question 528
Specify the date of the most recent transformation:___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Specify the MDS / MPN classification after transformation:
Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51)
Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62)
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64)
Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68)
Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66)
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50)
Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (167)
Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166)
Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58)
Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57)
Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167)
Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60)
Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54)
Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69)
Transformed to AML (70) – Go to signature line.
Laboratory studies at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
WBC
Known – Go to question 529
Unknown– Go to question 530
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Hemoglobin
Known – Go to question 531
Unknown – Go to question 533
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ g/dL
g/L
mmol/L
Was RBC transfused < 30 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Platelets
Known – Go to question 534
Unknown – Go to question 536
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Were platelets transfused < 7 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Neutrophils
Known – Go to question 537
Unknown – Go to question 538
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
Known – Go to question 539
Unknown – Go to question 540
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (conventional or FISH)?
Yes – Go to question 541
No – Go to question 568
Unknown – Go to question 568
Results of test:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 541
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 568
No abnormalities – Go to question 568
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
Yes
No
–7
Yes
No
–13
Yes
No
–20
Yes
No
–Y
Yes
No
Trisomy
+8
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(1;3)
Yes
No
t(2;11)
Yes
No
t(3;3)
Yes
No
t(3;21)
Yes
No
t(6;9)
Yes
No
t(11;16)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
Yes
No
del(5q) / 5q-
Yes
No
del(7q) / 7q-
Yes
No
del(9q) / 9q-
Yes
No
del(11q) / 11q-
Yes
No
del(12p) / 12p-
Yes
No
del(13q) / 13q-
Yes
No
del(20q) / 20q-
Yes
No
Inversion
inv(3)
Yes
No
Other
i17q
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes – Go to question 567
No – Go to question 568
Specify other abnormality:
Status at Transplantation
What was the disease status?
Complete remission (CR) – requires all of the following, maintained for ≥ 4 weeks: * bone marrow evaluation: < 5% myeloblasts with normal maturation of all cell lines * peripheral blood evaluation: hemoglobin ≥ 11 g/dL untransfused and without erythropoietin support; ANC ≥ 1000 / mm 3 without myeloid growth factor support; platlets ≥ 100 x 10 9/L without thrombopoietic support; 0% blasts - Go to question 572
Hematologic improvement (HI) – requires one measurement of the following, maintained for ≥ 8 weeks without ongoing cytotoxic therapy; specify which cell line was measured to determine HI response: * HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks * HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 10 9L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 10 9L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 10 9L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 10 9L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level * HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500 / mm3 - Go to question 569
No response / stable disease (NR/SD) – does not meet the criteria for at least HI, but no evidence of disease progression - Go to question 572
Progression from hematologic improvement (Prog from HI) – requires at least one of the following, in the absence of another explanation (e.g., infection, bleeding, ongoing chemotherapy, etc.): * ≥ 50% reduction from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * reduction in hemoglobin by ≥ 1.5 g/dL *transfusion dependence - Go to question 570
Relapse from complete remission (Rel from CR) – requires at least one of the following: * return to pre-treatment bone marrow blast percentage * decrease of ≥ 50% from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * transfusion dependence, or hemoglobin level ≥ 1.5 g/dL lower than prior to therapy - Go to question 571
Not assessed - Go to signature line
Specify the cell line examined to determine HI status:
HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks - Go to question 572
HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 10 9L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 10 9L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 10 9L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 10 9L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level – Go to question 572
HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500 / mm3 - Go to question 572
Date of progression: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 572
YYYY MM DD
Date of relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 572
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___- Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Other Leukemia (OL)
Specify the other leukemia classification:
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), NOS (34) - Go to question 575
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), B-cell / small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) (71) - Go to question 575
Hairy cell leukemia (35) - Go to question 578
Prolymphocytic leukemia (PLL), NOS (37) - Go to question 575
PLL, B-cell (73) - Go to question 575
PLL, T-cell (74) - Go to question 575
Other leukemia, NOS (30) - Go to question 577
Other leukemia (39) - Go to question 574
Specify other leukemia: – Go to question 577
Was any 17p abnormality detected?
Yes – If disease classification is CLL, go to question 576. If PLL, go to question 578.
No
Did a histologic transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter syndrome) occur at any time after CLL diagnosis?
Yes – Go to question 583– Also complete disease classification questions 583-585
No – Go to question 578
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status? (Atypical CML)
Primary induction failure – Go to question 579
1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) – Go to question 579
2nd complete remission – Go to question 579
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 579
1st relapse – Go to question 579
2nd relapse – Go to question 579
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 579
No treatment – Go to question 579
What was the disease status? (CLL, PLL, Hairy cell Leukemia)
Never treated
Complete remission (CR)
Nodular partial remission (nPR)
Partial remission (PR)
No response / stable (NR / SD)
Progression
Relapse (untreated)
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Specify Hodgkin lymphoma classification:
Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (155)
Lymphocyte-rich (151)
Nodular sclerosis (152)
Mixed cellularity (153)
Lymphocyte depleted (154)
Hodgkin lymphoma, NOS (150)
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
Disease untreated
PIF res - Primary induction failure – resistant: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with stable or progressive disease on treatment.
PIF sen / PR1 - Primary induction failure – sensitive: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with partial remission on treatment.
PIF unk - Primary induction failure – sensitivity unknown
CR1 - 1st complete remission: no bone marrow or extramedullary relapse prior to transplant
CR2 - 2nd complete remission
CR3+ - 3rd or subsequent complete remission
REL1 unt - 1st relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL1 res - 1st relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL1 sen - 1st relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission was achieved, classify as CR2)
REL1 unk - 1st relapse – sensitivity unknown
REL2 unt - 2nd relapse – untreated: includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL2 res - 2nd relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL2 sen - 2nd relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)
REL2 unk - 2nd relapse – sensitivity unknown
REL3+ unt - 3rd or subsequent relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL3+ res - 3rd or subsequent relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL3+ sen - 3rd or subsequent relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)
REL3+ unk - 3rd relapse or greater – sensitivity unknown
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
Specify Non-Hodgkin lymphoma classification:
Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (124)
Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosal associated lymphoid tissue type (MALT) (122)
Nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (± monocytoid B-cells) (123)
Follicular, predominantly small cleaved cell (Grade I follicle center lymphoma) (102)
Follicular, mixed, small cleaved and large cell (Grade II follicle center lymphoma) (103)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIA follicle center lymphoma) (162)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIB follicle center lymphoma) (163)
Follicular (grade unknown) (104)
Mantle cell lymphoma (115)
Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (136)
Primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma (125)
Primary effusion lymphoma (138)
Diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma — NOS (107)
Burkitt lymphoma (111)
B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between DLBCL and Burkitt lymphoma (140)
B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between DLBCL and classical Hodgkin Lymphoma (149)
T-cell / histiocytic rich large B-cell lymphoma (120)
Primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS (118)
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia / Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (173)
Other B-cell lymphoma (129) – Go to question 584
Extranodal NK / T-cell lymphoma, nasal type (137)
Enteropathy-type T-cell lymphoma (133)
Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma (145)
Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma (146)
Mycosis fungoides (141)
Sezary syndrome (142)
Primary cutaneous CD30+ T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders [Primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (C-ALCL), lymphoid papulosis] (147)
Peripheral T-cell lymphoma (PTCL), NOS (130)
Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma (131)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK positive (143)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK negative (144)
T-cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia (126)
Aggressive NK-cell leukemia (27)
Adult T-cell lymphoma / leukemia (HTLV1 associated) (134)
Other T-cell / NK-cell lymphoma (139) – Go to question 584
Specify other lymphoma:
Is the non-Hodgkin lymphoma histology reported at diagnosis (question 583) a transformation from CLL?
Yes – Go to question 587- Also complete Disease Classification questions 573 - 576
No - Go to question 586
Was histologic transformation (not from CLL) detected at the same time or at any time after the lymphoma diagnosis (question 583)?
Yes
No
Status at Transplantation
What was the disease status?
Disease untreated
PIF res - Primary induction failure – resistant: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with stable or progressive disease on treatment.
PIF sen / PR1 - Primary induction failure – sensitive: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with partial remission on treatment.
PIF unk - Primary induction failure – sensitivity unknown
CR1 - 1st complete remission: no bone marrow or extramedullary relapse prior to transplant
CR2 - 2nd complete remission
CR3+ - 3rd or subsequent complete remission
REL1 unt - 1st relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL1 res - 1st relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL1 sen - 1st relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission was achieved, classify as CR2)
REL1 unk - 1st relapse – sensitivity unknown
REL2 unt - 2nd relapse – untreated: includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL2 res - 2nd relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL2 sen - 2nd relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)
REL2 unk - 2nd relapse – sensitivity unknown
REL3+ unt - 3rd or subsequent relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse
REL3+ res - 3rd or subsequent relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment
REL3+ sen - 3rd or subsequent relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)
REL3+ unk - 3rd relapse or greater – sensitivity unknown
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Multiple Myeloma / Plasma Cell Disorder (PCD)
Specify the multiple myeloma/plasma cell disorder (PCD) classification:
Multiple myeloma-lgG (181) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-lgA (182) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-lgD (183) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-lgE (184) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-lgM (not Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia) (185) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-light chain only (186) - Go to questions 591
Multiple myeloma-non-secretory (187) - Go to questions 591
Plasma cell leukemia (172) - Go to question 597
Solitary plasmacytoma (no evidence of myeloma) (175) - Go to question 597
Amyloidosis (174) - Go to question 597
Osteosclerotic myeloma / POEMS syndrome (176) - Go to questions 597
Light chain deposition disease (177) - Go to questions 597
Other plasma cell disorder (179) - Go to question 590
Specify other plasma cell disorder: - Go to question 597
Light chain
κ (kappa)
λ (lambda)
What was the Durie-Salmon staging (at diagnosis)?
Stage I (All of the following: Hgb > 10g/dL; serum calcium normal or <10.5 mg/dL; bone x-ray normal bone structure (scale 0), or solitary bone plasmacytoma only; low M-component production rates IgG < 5g/dL, IgA < 3g/dL; urine light chain M-component on electrophoresis <4g/24h) – Go to questions 593
Stage II (Fitting neither Stage I or Stage III) – Go to questions 593
Stage III (One of more of the following: Hgb < 8.5 g/dL; serum calcium > 12 mg/dL; advanced lytic bone lesions (scale 3); high M-component production rates IgG >7g/dL, IgA > 5g/dL; Bence Jones protein >12g/24h) – Go to questions 593
Unknown – Go to questions 594
What was the Durie-Salmon sub classification (at diagnosis)?
A - relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine < 2.0 mg/dL)
B - abnormal renal function (serum creatinine ≥ 2.0 mg/dL)
I.S.S.:
Serum β2-microglobulin: ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ ___ μg/dL
mg/L
nmol/L
Serum albumin: ___ ___ ● ___ g/dL
g/L
Stage
1 (β2-mic < 3.5, S. albumin > 3.5)
2 (β2-mic 3.5–< 5.5, S. albumin —)
3 (β2-mic ≥ 5.5; S. albumin —)
Were cytogenetics tested (conventional or FISH)?
Yes – Go to questions 598
No – Go to question 619
Unknown – Go to question 619
Results of test:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 599
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 619
No abnormalities – Go to question 619
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Trisomy
+3
Yes
No
+5
Yes
No
+7
Yes
No
+9
Yes
No
+11
Yes
No
+15
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(4;14)
Yes
No
t(6;14)
Yes
No
t(11;14)
Yes
No
t(14;16)
Yes
No
t(14;20)
Yes
No
Deletion
del 13/13q-
Yes
No
del 17/17p-
Yes
No
Other
Hyperdiploid (>50)
Yes
No
Hypodiploid (<46)
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1q
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1p
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes – Go to question 618
No – Go to question 619
Specify other abnormality:______________________________________________
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
Stringent complete remission (sCR). - CR as defined, plus: normal free light chain ratio, and absence of clonal cells in the bone marrow by immunohistochemistry or immunofluorescence (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). (Presence and/or absence of clonal cells is based upon the κ/λ ratio. An abnormal κ/λ ratio by immunohistochemistry and/or immunofluorescence requires a minimum of 100 plasma cells for analysis. An abnormal ratio reflecting the presence of an abnormal clone is κ/λ of > 4:1 or < 1:2.) sCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy sCR requirements.
Complete remission (CR) — negative immunofixation on serum and urine samples, and disappearance of any soft tissue plasmacytomas, and ≤ 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). CR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy CR requirements.
Near complete remission (nCR) — serum & urine M-protein detectable by immunoelectrophoresis (IFE), but not on electrophoresis (negative SPEP & UPEP); ≤ 5% plasma cells in bone marrow. nCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the initiation of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy nCR requirements.
Very good partial remission (VGPR ) — serum and urine M-protein detectable by immunofixation but not on electrophoresis, or ≥ 90% reduction in serum M-protein and urine M-protein level < 100 mg/24 hours. VGPR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy VGPR requirements.
Partial remission (PR) — ≥ 50% reduction in serum M-protein, and reduction in 24-hour urinary M-protein by ≥ 90% or to < 200 mg/24 hours. If the serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable (i.e., do not meet any of the following criteria: • serum M-protein ≥ 1 g/dL. Urine M-protein ≥ 200 mg/24 hours • serum free light chain assay shows involved level ≥ 10 mg/dL, provided serum free light chain ratio is abnormal), a ≥ 50% decrease in the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels is required in place of the M-protein criteria. If serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable, and serum free light assay is also unmeasurable, a ≥ 50% reduction in plasma cells is required in place of M-protein, provided the baseline bone marrow plasma cell percentage was ≥ 30%. In addition to the above listed criteria, a ≥ 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytomas is also required, if present at baseline. PR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy PR requirements.
Stable disease (SD) — not meeting the criteria for CR, VGPR, PR or PD. SD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy SD requirements.
Progressive disease (PD) — requires any one or more of the following: Increase of ≥ 25% from baseline in: serum M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 0.5 g/dL) (for progressive disease, serum M-component increases of ≥ 1 g/dL are sufficient to define relapse if the starting M-component is ≥ 5 g/dL). Urine M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 200 mg.24 hours) for recipients without measurable serum and urine M-protein levels: the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels (absolute increase > 10 mg/dL). Bone marrow plasma cell percentage (absolute percentage ≥ 10%) (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) definite development of new bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas, or definite increase in the size of any existing bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas. Development of hypercalcemia (corrected serum calcium > 11.5 mg/dL or 2.65 mmol) that can be attributed solely to the plasma cell proliferative disorder PD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as disease progression, and/or the institution of any new therapy
Relapse from CR (Rel) (untreated) — requires one or more of the following: reappearance of serum or urine M-protein by immunofixation or electrophoresis development of ≥ 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) appearance of any other sign of progression (e.g., new plasmacytoma, lytic bone lesion, hypercalcemia) Rel requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as relapse, and/or the institution of any new therapy.
Unknown
Not applicable (Amyloidosis with no evidence of myeloma)
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Solid Tumors
Specify the solid tumor classification:
Breast cancer (250)
Lung, small cell (202)
Lung, non-small cell (203)
Lung, not otherwise specified (230)
Germ cell tumor, extragonadal (225)
Testicular (210)
Ovarian (epithelial) (214)
Bone sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (273)
Ewing family tumors of bone (including PNET) (275)
Ewing family tumors, extraosseous (including PNET) (276)
Fibrosarcoma (244)
Hemangiosarcoma (246)
Leiomyosarcoma (242)
Liposarcoma (243)
Lymphangio sarcoma (247)
Neurogenic sarcoma (248)
Rhabdomyosarcoma (232)
Synovial sarcoma (245)
Soft tissue sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (274)
Central nervous system tumor, including CNS PNET (220)
Medulloblastoma (226)
Neuroblastoma (222)
Head / neck (201)
Mediastinal neoplasm (204)
Colorectal (228)
Gastric (229)
Pancreatic (206)
Hepatobiliary (207)
Prostate (209)
External genitalia (211)
Cervical (212)
Uterine (213)
Vaginal (215)
Melanoma (219)
Wilm tumor (221)
Retinoblastoma (223)
Thymoma (231)
Renal cell (208)
Other solid tumor (269)
Solid tumor, not otherwise specified (200)
- Go to signature line
Severe Aplastic Anemia
Specify the severe aplastic anemia classification:
Acquired severe aplastic anemia, not otherwise specified (301)
Acquired SAA secondary to hepatitis (302)
Acquired SAA secondary to toxin / other drug (303)
Acquired amegakaryocytosis (not congenital) (304)
Acquired pure red cell aplasia (not congenital) (306)
Other acquired cytopenic syndrome (309)
- Go to signature line
Inherited Abnormalities of Erythrocyte Differentiation or Function
Specify the inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function classification:
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) (56)
Shwachman-Diamond (305)
Diamond-Blackfan anemia (pure red cell aplasia) (312)
Other constitutional anemia (319)
Fanconi anemia (311) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease).
Sickle thalassemia (355)
Sickle cell disease (356)
Thalassemia, not otherwise specified (350)
Other hemoglobinopathy (359)
- Go to signature line
Disorders of the immune system
Specify disorder of immune system classification:
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency / severe combined immunodefiency (SCID) (401)
Absence of T and B cells SCID (402)
Absence of T, normal B cell SCID (403)
Omenn syndrome (404)
Reticular dysgenesis (405)
Bare lymphocyte syndrome (406)
Other SCID (419)
SCID, not otherwise specified (410)
Ataxia telangiectasia (451)
HIV infection (452)
DiGeorge anomaly (454)
Common variable immunodeficiency (457)
Leukocyte adhesion deficiencies, including GP180, CD-18, LFA and WBC adhesion deficiencies (459)
Kostmann agranulocytosis (congenital neutropenia) (460)
Neutrophil actin deficiency (461)
Cartilage-hair hypoplasia (462)
CD40 ligand deficiency (464)
Other immunodeficiencies (479)
Immune deficiency, not otherwise specified (400)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome (456)
Griscelli syndrome type 2 (465)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome type 2 (466)
Chronic granulomatous disease (455)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (453)
X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome (458)
- Go to signature line
Inherited abnormalities of platelets
Specify inherited abnormalities of platelets classification:
Congenital amegakaryocytosis / congenital thrombocytopenia (501)
Glanzmann thrombasthenia (502)
Other inherited platelet abnormality (509)
- Go to signature line
Inherited Disorders of Metabolism
Specify inherited disorders of metabolism classification:
Osteopetrosis (malignant infantile osteopetrosis) (521)
Leukodystrophies
Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) (542)
Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) (543)
Krabbe disease (globoid leukodystrophy) (544)
Lesch-Nyhan (HGPRT deficiency) (522)
Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (Batten disease) (523)
Mucopolysaccharidoses
Hurler syndrome (IH) (531)
Scheie syndrome (IS) (532)
Hunter syndrome (II) (533)
Sanfilippo (III) (534)
Morquio (IV) (535)
Maroteaux-Lamy (VI) (536)
β-glucuronidase deficiency (VII) (537)
Mucopolysaccharidosis (V) (538)
Mucopolysaccharidosis, not otherwise specified (530)
Mucolipidoses
Gaucher disease (541)
Niemann-Pick disease (545)
I-cell disease (546)
Wolman disease (547)
Glucose storage disease (548)
Mucolipidoses, not otherwise specified (540)
Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormalities
Aspartyl glucosaminidase (561)
Fucosidosis (562)
Mannosidosis (563)
Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormality, not otherwise specified (560)
Other inherited metabolic disorder (529)
Inherited metabolic disorder, not otherwise specified (520)
- Go to signature line
Histiocytic disorders
Specify histiocytic disorder classification:
Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) (571)
Langerhans cell histiocytosis (histiocytosis-X) (572)
Hemophagocytosis (reactive or viral associated) (573)
Malignant histiocytosis (574)
Other histiocytic disorder (579)
Histiocytic disorder, not otherwise specified (570)
- Go to signature line
Autoimmune diseases
Specify autoimmune disease classification:
Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (603)
Psoriatic arthritis / psoriasis (604)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): systemic (Stills disease) (640)
JIA: oligoarticular (641)
JIA: polyarticular (642)
JIA: other (643)
Other arthritis (633)
Multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (602)
Connective tissue diseases
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) (607)
Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) (605)
Sjögren syndrome (608)
Polymyositis / dermatomyositis (606)
Antiphospholipid syndrome (614)
Other connective tissue disease (634)
Vasculitis
Wegener granulomatosis (610)
Classical polyarteritis nodosa (631)
Microscopic polyarteritis nodosa (632)
Churg-Strauss (635)
Giant cell arteritis (636)
Takayasu (637)
Behcet syndrome (638)
Overlap necrotizing arteritis (639)
Other vasculitis (611)
Other neurological autoimmune diseases
Myasthenia gravis (601)
Other autoimmune neurological disorder (644)
Hematological autoimmune diseases
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) (645)
Hemolytic anemia (646)
Evan syndrome (647)
Other autoimmune cytopenia (648)
Bowel diseases
Crohn’s disease (649)
Ulcerative colitis (650)
Other autoimmune bowel disorder (651)
- Go to signature line
Other Disease
Specify other disease: _________________________________________
First Name: ____________________________________________________________________________
Last Name:
E-mail address:
Date: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
CIBMTR
Form 2400 revision 4 (page
Internal use: Document number F00485 revision 2 Replaces: F00485 version 1.0 July 2007
File Type | application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document |
File Title | 2400r4 |
Author | Robinette Aley |
File Modified | 0000-00-00 |
File Created | 2021-01-29 |