Disease Classification
OMB No: 0915-0310
Expiration Date: 1/31/2020
Public Burden Statement: An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control number for this project is 0915-0310. Public reporting burden for this collection of information is estimated to average 0.85 hours per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, and completing and reviewing the collection of information. Send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden, to HRSA Reports Clearance Officer, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 10-33, Rockville, Maryland, 20857.
Expiration date:
CIBMTR Use Only
Sequence Number:
Date Received:
CIBMTR Center Number: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
CIBMTR Research ID: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Event date: ___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___
Date of diagnosis of primary disease for HCT / cellular therapy: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
What was the primary disease for which the HCT / cellular therapy was performed?
Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML or ANLL) (10) - Go to question 3
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) (20) - Go to question 90
Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage and other myeloid neoplasms (80) - Go to question 152
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) (40) - Go to question 156
Myelodysplastic
(MDS) / myeloproliferative (MPN) diseases (50)
(Please classify all preleukemias)
(If recipient has
transformed to AML, indicate AML as the primary disease) - Go
to question 167
Other leukemia (30) (includes CLL) - Go to question 261
Hodgkin lymphoma (150) - Go to question 268
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (100) - Go to question 268
Multiple myeloma / plasma cell disorder (PCD) (170) - Go to question 268
Solid tumors (200) - Go to question 300
Severe aplastic anemia (300) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease) - Go to question 302
Inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function (310) - Go to question 304
Disorders of the immune system (400) - Go to question 307
Inherited abnormalities of platelets (500) - Go to question 310
Inherited disorders of metabolism (520) - Go to question 312
Histiocytic disorders (570) - Go to question 314
Autoimmune diseases (600) - Go to question 316
Other disease (900) - Go to question 324
Specify the AML classification:
AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities
AML with t(9;11) (p22.3;q23.3); MLLT3-KMT2A (5)
AML with t(6;9) (p23;q34.1); DEK-NUP214 (6)
AML with inv(3) (q21.3;q26.2) or t(3;3) (q21.3;q26.2); GATA2, MECOM (7)
AML (megakaryoblastic) with t(1;22) (p13.3;q13.3); RBM15-MKL1 (8)
AML with t(8;21); (q22; q22.1); RUNX1-RUNX1T1 (281)
AML with inv(16)(p13.1;1q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1; q22); CBFB-MYH11 (282)
APL with PML-RARA (283)
AML with BCR-ABL1 (provisional entity) (3)
AML with mutated NPM1 (4)
AML with biallelic mutations of CEBPA (297)
AML with mutated RUNX1 (provisional entity) (298)
AML with 11q23 (MLL) abnormalities (i.e., t(4;11), t(6;11), t(9;11), t(11;19)) (284)
AML with myelodysplasia – related changes (285)
Therapy related AML (t-AML) (9)
AML, not otherwise specified
AML, not otherwise specified (280)
AML, minimally differentiated (286)
AML without maturation (287)
AML with maturation (288)
Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (289)
Acute monoblastic / acute monocytic leukemia (290)
Acute erythroid leukemia (erythroid / myeloid and pure erythroleukemia) (291)
Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (292)
Acute basophilic leukemia (293)
Acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis (294)
Myeloid sarcoma (295)
Myeloid leukemia associated with Down syndrome (299)
Did AML transform from MDS or MPN?
Yes – Also complete MDS Disease Classification questions
No
Is the disease (AML) therapy related?
Yes
No
Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
Yes - Go to question 7
No - Go to question 9
Unknown - Go to question 9
Specify condition:
Bloom syndrome - Go to question 9
Down syndrome - Go to question 9
Fanconi anemia - Also complete CIBMTR Form 2029 - Go to question 9
Dyskeratosis congenita - Go to question 9
Other condition - Go to question 8
Specify other condition: __________________________________________
Labs at diagnosis
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 10
No - Go to question 21
Unknown - Go to question 21
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
Yes – Go to question 11
No - Go to question 15
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 12
No abnormalities - Go to question 15
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 14
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
Yes – Go to question 16
No - Go to question 20
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 17
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 21
No abnormalities - Go to question 21
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 19
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at diagnosis)
Yes – Go to question 22
No – Go to question 34
Unknown – Go to question 34
Specify molecular markers identified at diagnosis:
CEBPA
Positive – Go to question 23
Negative - Go to question 24
Not done - Go to question 24
Specify CEBPA mutation
Biallelic (homozygous)
Monoallelic (heterozygous)
Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
Positive
Negative
Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
Positive- Go to question 26
Negative- Go to question 26
Not done- Go to question 27
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
Known - Go to question 27
Unknown - Go to question 28
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
Positive
Negative
Not done
IDH2
Positive
Negative
Not done
KIT
Positive
Negative
Not done
NPM1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive- Go to question 33
Negative- Go to question 33
Not done- Go to question 34
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 32-33 for multiple molecular markers
Labs between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 35
No - Go to question 46
Unknown - Go to question 46
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
Yes – Go to question 36
No - Go to question 40
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 37
No abnormalities - Go to question 40
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 39
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
Yes – Go to question 41
No - Go to question 45
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 42
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 46
No abnormalities - Go to question 46
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 44
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
Yes – Go to question 47
No – Go to question 59
Unknown – Go to question 59
Specify molecular markers identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
CEBPA
Positive – Go to question 48
Negative - Go to question 49
Not done - Go to question 49
Specify CEBPA mutation
Biallelic (homozygous)
Monoallelic (heterozygous)
Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
Positive
Negative
Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
Positive - Go to question 51
Negative - Go to question 53
Not done - Go to question 53
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
Known - Go to question 52
Unknown - Go to question 53
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
Positive
Negative
Not done
IDH2
Positive
Negative
Not done
KIT
Positive
Negative
Not done
NPM1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive- Go to question 58
Negative- Go to question 58
Not done- Go to question 59
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 57-58 to report multiple other molecular markers
Labs at last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 60
No - Go to question 71
Unknown - Go to question 71
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
Yes – Go to question 61
No - Go to question 65
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 62
No abnormalities - Go to question 65
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 64
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
Yes – Go to question 66
No - Go to question 71
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 67
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 71
No abnormalities - Go to question 71
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
-5
-7
-17
-18
-X
-Y
+4
+8
+11
+13
+14
+21
+22
t(3;3)
t(6;9)
t(8;21)
t(9;11)
t(9;22)
t(15;17) and variants
t(16;16)
del(3q) / 3q–
del(5q) / 5q–
del(7q) / 7q–
del(9q) / 9q–
del(11q) / 11q–
del(16q) / 16q–
del(17q) / 17q–
del(20q) / 20q–
del(21q) / 21q–
inv(3)
inv(16)
(11q23) any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Other abnormality - Go to question 69
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at last evaluation)
Yes – Go to question 72
No – Go to question 84
Unknown – Go to question 84
Specify molecular markers identified at last evaluation:
CEBPA
Positive – Go to question 73
Negative - Go to question 74
Not done - Go to question 74
Specify CEBPA mutation
Biallelic (homozygous)
Monoallelic (heterozygous)
Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
Positive
Negative
Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
Positive - Go to question 76
Negative - Go to question 78
Not done - Go to question 78
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
Known - Go to question 77
Unknown - Go to question 78
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
Positive
Negative
Not done
IDH2
Positive
Negative
Not done
KIT
Positive
Negative
Not done
NPM1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive- Go to question 83
Negative- Go to question 83
Not done- Go to question 84
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 82-83 to report multiple other molecular markers
CNS Leukemia
Did the recipient have central nervous system leukemia at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion?
Yes
No
Unknown
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
Primary induction failure – Go to question 89
1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) (include CRi)– Go to question 86
2nd complete remission – Go to question 86
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 86
1st relapse – Go to question 88
2nd relapse – Go to question 88
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 88
No treatment – Go to question 89
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve 1st complete remission? (includes CRi)
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes – Go to question 89
No – Go to question 89
Unknown – Go to question 89
Not applicable – Go to question 89
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify ALL classification:
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, NOS (B-cell ALL, NOS) (191)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 (192)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(v;11q23.3); KMT2A rearranged (193)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(1;19)(q23;p13.3); TCF3-PBX1 (194)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(12;21) (p13.2;q22.1); ETV6-RUNX1 (195)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(5;14) (q31.1;q32.3); IL3-IGH (81)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with Hyperdiploidy (51-65 chromosomes) (82)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with Hypodiploidy (<45 chromosomes) (83)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, BCR-ABL1-like (provisional entity) (94)
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, with iAMP21 (provisional entity) (95)
T-cell lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma
Early T-cell precursor lymphoblastic leukemia (provisional entity) (96)
Natural killer (NK)- cell lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma (provisional entity) (97)
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
Yes - Go to question 92
No - Go to question 94
Unknown - Go to question 94
Specify condition:
Aplastic anemia - Go to question 94 Also complete CIBMTR Form 2028 — APL
Bloom syndrome - Go to question 94
Down syndrome - Go to question 94
Fanconi anemia - Go to question 924 Also complete CIBMTR Form 2029 — FAN
Other condition - Go to question 93
Specify other condition:
Were tyrosine kinase inhibitors given for therapy at any time prior to start of the preparative regimen / infusion? (e.g. imatinib mesylate, dasatinib, etc.)
Yes
No
Laboratory studies at diagnosis:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 96
No - Go to question 106
Unknown - Go to question 106
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 97
No - Go to question 101
Results of tests: (at diagnosis)
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 98
No abnormalities - Go to question 101
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 100
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 102
No - Go to question 107
Results of tests: (at diagnosis)
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 103
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 107
No abnormalities - Go to question 107
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 105
Specify other abnormality: _________________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at diagnosis)
Yes – Go to question 108
No – Go to question 113
Unknown – Go to question 113
Specify molecular markers identified at diagnosis:
BCR / ABL
Positive
Negative
Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive – Go to question 111
Negative – Go to question 111
Not done – Go to question 112
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 110-111 for additional molecular markers
Laboratory studies between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 113
No - Go to question 124
Unknown - Go to question 124
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH? (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 114
No - Go to question 118
Results of tests: (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 115
No abnormalities - Go to question 118
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 117
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 119
No - Go to question 124
Results of tests: (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 120
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 124
No abnormalities - Go to question 124
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 122
Specify other abnormality:
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
Yes – Go to question 125
No – Go to question 129
Unknown – Go to question 129
Specify molecular markers identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
BCR / ABL
Positive
Negative
Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive – Go to question 128
Negative – Go to question 128
Not done – Go to question 129
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 127-128 for additional molecular markers
Laboratory studies at last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 130
No - Go to question 141
Unknown - Go to question 141
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
Yes - Go to question 131
No - Go to question 135
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 132
No abnormalities - Go to question 135
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 134
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (at last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 136
No - Go to question 141
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified - Go to question 137
No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 141
No abnormalities - Go to question 141
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
–7
+4
+8
+17
+21
t(1;19)
t(2;8)
t(4;11)
t(5;14)
t(8;14)
t(8;22)
t(9;22)
t(10;14)
t(11;14)
t(12;21)
del(6q) / 6q–
del(9p) / 9p–
del(12p) / 12p–
add(14q)
(11q23) any abnormality
9p any abnormality
12p any abnormality
Hyperdiploid (> 50)
Hypodiploid (< 45)
iAMP21
Other abnormality – Go to question 139
Specify other abnormality:
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
Yes
No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at last evaluation)
Yes – Go to question 142
No – Go to question 146
Unknown – Go to question 146
Specify molecular markers identified at last evaluation:
BCR / ABL
Positive
Negative
Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
Positive
Negative
Not done
Other molecular marker
Positive – Go to question 145
Negative – Go to question 145
Not done – Go to question 146
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 144-145 for additional molecular markers
CNS Leukemia
Did the recipient have central nervous system leukemia at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion?
Yes
No
Unknown
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
Primary induction failure – Go to question 151
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse)(include CRi) – Go to question 148
2nd complete remission – Go to question 148
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 148
1st relapse – Go to question 150
2nd relapse – Go to question 150
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 150
No treatment – Go to question 151
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve 1st complete remission (include CRi)?
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes – Go to question 151
No – Go to question 151
Unknown – Go to question 151
Not applicable – Go to question 151
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify acute leukemias of ambiguous lineage and other myeloid neoplasm classification:
Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm (296)– Go to question 154
Acute undifferentiated leukemia (31) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL) with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 (84) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(v; 11q23.3); KMT2A rearranged (85) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, B/myeloid, NOS (86) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, T/myeloid, NOS (87) – Go to question 154
Other acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage or myeloid neoplasm (88) - Go to question 153
Specify other acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage or myeloid neoplasm:
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
Primary induction failure
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse)
2nd complete remission
≥ 3rd complete remission
1st relapse
2nd relapse
≥3rd relapse
No treatment
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Was therapy given prior to this HCT?
Yes - Go to questions 157
No - Go to question 163
Combination chemotherapy
Yes
No
Hydroxyurea (Droxia, Hydrea)
Yes
No
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (e.g.imatinib mesylate, dasatinib, nilotinib)
Yes
No
Interferon-α (Intron, Roferon) (includes PEG)
Yes
No
Other therapy
Yes - Go to question 162
No - Go to question 163
Specify other therapy: ______________________________________
What was the disease status?
Complete hematologic response (CHR) - Go to question 164
Chronic phase – Go to question 164
Accelerated phase - Go to question 165
Blast phase - Go to question 165
Specify level of response
No cytogenetic response (No CyR)
Minimal cytogenetic response
Minor cytogenetic response
Partial cytogenetic response (PCyR)
Complete cytogenetic response (CCyR)
Major molecular remission (MMR)
Complete molecular remission (CMR)
Number
1st
2nd
3rd or higher
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
What was the MDS / MPN subtype at diagnosis? – If transformed to AML, indicate AML as primary disease; also complete AML Disease Classification questions
Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51)
Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61)
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62)
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64)
Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68)
Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66)
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50)
Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (165)
Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166)
Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58)
Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57)
Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167)
Mastocytosis
Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60)
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRA rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRB rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with FGFR1 rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PCM1-JAK2-
Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54)
Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML/JCML) (no evidence of Ph1 or BCR/ABL) (36) – Go to question 212
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (aCML), BCR-ABL1- – Go to question 265
MDS / MPN with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS / MPN–RS–T)
Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69)
Was the disease (MDS/MPN) therapy related?
Yes
No
Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
Yes – Go to question 168
No – Go to question 170
Unknown – Go to question 170
Specify condition:
Aplastic anemia – Go to question 172
Bloom syndrome – Go to question 172
Down syndrome – Go to question 172
Fanconi anemia – – Go to question 172
Other condition – Go to question 171
Specify other condition:
Laboratory studies at diagnosis of MDS:
WBC
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Hemoglobin
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ g/dL
g/L
mmol/L
Was RBC transfused ≤ 30 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Platelets
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Were platelets transfused ≤ 7 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Neutrophils
Known
Unknown
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
Yes – Go to question 185
No – Go to question 212
Unknown – Go to question 212
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 186
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 212
No abnormalities – Go to question 212
Specify abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
Yes
No
–7
Yes
No
–13
Yes
No
–20
Yes
No
–Y
Yes
No
Trisomy
+8
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(1;3)
Yes
No
t(2;11)
Yes
No
t(3;3)
Yes
No
t(3;21)
Yes
No
t(6;9)
Yes
No
t(11;16)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
Yes
No
del(5q) / 5q-
Yes –
No
del(7q) / 7q-
Yes
No
del(9q) / 9q-
Yes
No
del(11q) / 11q-
Yes
No
del(12p) / 12p-
Yes
No
del(13q) / 13q-
Yes
No
del(20q) / 20q-
Yes
No
Inversion
inv(3)
Yes
No
Other
i17q
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes – Go to question 211
No – Go to question 212
Specify other abnormality:
Did the recipient progress or transform to a different MDS / MPN subtype between diagnosis and the start of the preparative regimen?
Yes – Go to question 213
No – Go to question 216
Specify the MDS / MPN subtype after transformation:
Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51) – Go to question 214
Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55) – Go to question 214
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61) – Go to question 214
Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62) – Go to question 214
Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64) – Go to question 214
Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68) – Go to question 214
Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66) – Go to question 214
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50) – Go to question 214
Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (165) – Go to question 214
Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166) – Go to question 214
Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58) – Go to question 214
Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57) – Go to question 214
Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167) – Go to question 214
Mastocytosis
Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60) – Go to question 214
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRA rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRB rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with FGFR1 rearrangement
Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PCM1-JAK2-
Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54) – Go to question 214
Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (aCML), BCR-ABL1- – Go to question 265
MDS / MPN with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS / MPN–RS–T)
Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69) – Go to question 214
Transformed to AML (70) – Go to question 215
Specify the date of the most recent transformation:___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 216
Date of MDS diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___ – Go to signature line
Laboratory studies at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
WBC
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Hemoglobin
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ g/dL
g/L
mmol/L
Was RBC transfused ≤ 30 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Platelets
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
x 106/L
Were platelets transfused ≤ 7 days before date of test?
Yes
No
Neutrophils
Known
Unknown
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
Known
Unknown
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
Yes – Go to question 229
No – Go to question 256
Unknown – Go to question 256
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 230
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 256
No abnormalities – Go to question 256
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
Yes
No
–7
Yes
No
–13
Yes
No
–20
Yes
No
–Y
Yes
No
Trisomy
+8
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(1;3)
Yes
No
t(2;11)
Yes
No
t(3;3)
Yes
No
t(3;21)
Yes
No
t(6;9)
Yes
No
t(11;16)
Yes
No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
Yes
No
del(5q) / 5q-
Yes
No
del(7q) / 7q-
Yes
No
del(9q) / 9q-
Yes
No
del(11q) / 11q-
Yes
No
del(12p) / 12p-
Yes
No
del(13q) / 13q-
Yes
No
del(20q) / 20q-
Yes
No
Inversion
inv(3)
Yes
No
Other
i17q
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes – Go to question 255
No – Go to question 256
Specify other abnormality:
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
Complete remission (CR) – requires all of the following, maintained for ≥ 4 weeks: * bone marrow evaluation: < 5% myeloblasts with normal maturation of all cell lines * peripheral blood evaluation: hemoglobin ≥ 11 g/dL untransfused and without erythropoietin support; ANC ≥ 1000/mm3 without myeloid growth factor support; platelets ≥ 100 x 109/L without thrombopoietic support; 0% blasts - Go to question 260
Hematologic improvement (HI) – requires one measurement of the following, maintained for ≥ 8 weeks without ongoing cytotoxic therapy; specify which cell line was measured to determine HI response: * HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks * HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 109/L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 109/L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level * HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500/mm3 - Go to question 257
No response (NR) / stable disease (SD) – does not meet the criteria for at least HI, but no evidence of disease progression - Go to question 260
Progression from hematologic improvement (Prog from HI) – requires at least one of the following, in the absence of another explanation (e.g., infection, bleeding, ongoing chemotherapy, etc.): * ≥ 50% reduction from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * reduction in hemoglobin by ≥ 1.5 g/dL *transfusion dependence - Go to question 258
Relapse from complete remission (Rel from CR) – requires at least one of the following: * return to pre-treatment bone marrow blast percentage * decrease of ≥ 50% from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * transfusion dependence, or hemoglobin level ≥ 1.5 g/dL lower than prior to therapy - Go to question 259
Not assessed - Go to signature line
Specify the cell line examined to determine HI status:
HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks - Go to question 260
HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 109/L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 109/L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level – Go to question 260
HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500/mm3 - Go to question 260
Date of progression: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 260
YYYY MM DD
Date of relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 260
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___- Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the other leukemia classification:
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), NOS (34) - Go to question 263
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), B-cell / small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) (71) - Go to question 263
Hairy cell leukemia (35) - Go to question 266
Hairy cell leukemia variant (75) - Go to question 266
Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (76) – Go to signature line
Prolymphocytic leukemia (PLL), NOS (37) - Go to question 263
PLL, B-cell (73) - Go to question 263
PLL, T-cell (74) - Go to question 263
Other leukemia, NOS (30) - Go to question 265
Other leukemia (39) - Go to question 262
Specify other leukemia: – Go to question 265
Was any 17p abnormality detected?
Yes – If disease classification is CLL, go to question 264. If PLL, go to question 266
No
Did a histologic transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter syndrome) occur at any time after CLL diagnosis?
Yes – Go to question 271– Also complete NHL Disease Classification questions
No – Go to question 266
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status? (Atypical CML)
Primary induction failure – Go to question 267
1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) – Go to question 267
2nd complete remission – Go to question 267
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 267
1st relapse – Go to question 267
2nd relapse – Go to question 267
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 267
No treatment – Go to signature line
What was the disease status? (CLL, PLL, Hairy cell leukemia)
Complete remission (CR) – Go to question 267
Partial remission (PR) – Go to question 267
Stable disease (SD) – Go to question 267
Progressive disease (Prog) – Go to question 267
Untreated - Go to question 267
Not assessed - Go to signature line
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the lymphoma histology: (at transplant)
Hodgkin Lymphoma Codes
Hodgkin lymphoma, not otherwise specified (150)
Lymphocyte depleted (154)
Lymphocyte-rich (151)
Mixed cellularity (153)
Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (155)
Nodular sclerosis (152)
Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma Codes
B-cell Neoplasms
ALK+ large B-cell lymphoma (1833)
B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between DLBCL and classical Hodgkin lymphoma (149)
Burkitt lymphoma (111)
Burkitt-like lymphoma with 11q aberration (1834)
Diffuse large B-cell Lymphoma (cell of origin unknown) (107)
Diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma- Germinal center B-cell type (1820) – Go to question 270
Diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma- Activated B-cell type (non-GCB) (1821) – Go to question 270
DLBCL associated with chronic inflammation (1825)
Duodenal-type follicular lymphoma (1815)
EBV+ DLBCL, NOS (1823)
EBV+ mucocutaneous ulcer (1824)
Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosal associated lymphoid tissue type (MALT) (122)
Follicular, predominantly small cleaved cell (Grade I follicle center lymphoma) (102)
Follicular, mixed, small cleaved and large cell (Grade II follicle center lymphoma) (103)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIA follicle center lymphoma) (162)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIB follicle center lymphoma) (163)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIA vs IIIB not specified) (1814)
Follicular (grade unknown) (164)
HHV8+ DLBCL, NOS (1826)
High-grade B-cell lymphoma, with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements (1831)
High-grade B-cell lymphoma, NOS (1830)
Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (136)
Large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement (1832)
Lymphomatoid granulomatosis (1835)
Mantle cell lymphoma (115)
Nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (± monocytoid B-cells) (123)
Pediatric nodal marginal zone lymphoma (1813)
Pediatric-type follicular lymphoma (1816)
Plasmablastic lymphoma (1836)
Primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma (1817)
Primary cutaneous DLBCL, leg type (1822)
Primary diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS (118)
Primary effusion lymphoma (138)
Primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma (125)
Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (124)
Splenic B-cell lymphoma/leukemia, unclassifiable (1811)
Splenic diffuse red pulp small B-cell lymphoma (1812)
T-cell / histiocytic rich large B-cell lymphoma (120)
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia / Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (173)
Other B-cell lymphoma (129) – Go to question 269
T-cell and NK-cell Neoplasms
Adult T-cell lymphoma / leukemia (HTLV1 associated) (134)
Aggressive NK-cell leukemia (27)
Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma (131)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK positive (143)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK negative (144)
Breast implant–associated anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (1861)
Chronic lymphoproliferative disorder of NK cells (1856)
Extranodal NK / T-cell lymphoma, nasal type (137)
Enteropathy-type T-cell lymphoma (133)
Follicular T-cell lymphoma (1859)
Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma (145)
Indolent T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder of the GI tract (1858)
Monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma (1857)
Mycosis fungoides (141)
Nodal peripheral T-cell lymphoma with TFH phenotype (1860)
Peripheral T-cell lymphoma (PTCL), NOS (130)
Primary cutaneous γδ T-cell lymphoma (1851)
Primary cutaneous CD8+ aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma (1852)
Primary cutaneous acral CD8+ T-cell lymphoma (1853)
Primary cutaneous CD4+ small/medium T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder (1854)
Primary cutaneous CD30+ T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders [Primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (C-ALCL), lymphoid papulosis] (147)
Sezary syndrome (142)
Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma (146)
Systemic EBV+ T-cell lymphoma of childhood (1855)
T-cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia (126)
Other T-cell / NK-cell lymphoma (139) Go to question 269
Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD)
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma PTLD (1876)
Florid follicular hyperplasia PTLD (1873)
Infectious mononucleosis PTLD (1872)
Monomorphic PTLD (B- and T-/NK-cell types) (1875)
Plasmacytic hyperplasia PTLD (1871)
Polymorphic PTLD (1874)
Specify other lymphoma histology: ______________________ – Go to question 271
Assignment of DLBCL (germinal center B-cell type vs. Activated B-cell type) subtype was based on:
Immunohistochemistry (e.g. Han’s algorithm)
Gene expression profile
Unknown method
Is the lymphoma histology reported at transplant a transformation from CLL?
Yes – Go to question 272
No - Go to question 273
Was any 17p abnormality detected?
Yes– Go to question 277
No– Go to question 277
Is the lymphoma histology reported at transplant a transformation from a different lymphoma histology? (Not CLL)
Yes – Go to question 274
No – Go to question 277
Specify the original lymphoma histology: (prior to transformation) same option list as Q268
Specify other lymphoma histology:________________
Date of original lymphoma diagnosis:___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___ (report the date of diagnosis of original lymphoma subtype)
Was a PET (or PET/CT) scan performed? (at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion)
Yes – Go to question 278
No – Go to question 283
Was the PET (or PET/CT) scan positive for lymphoma involvement at any disease site?
Yes
No
Date of PET scan
Known– Go to question 280
Unknown – Go to question 281
Date of PET (or PET/CT) scan: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Deauville (five-point) score of the PET (or PET/CT) scan
Known – Go to question 282
Unknown – Go to question 283
Scale
1- no uptake or no residual uptake
2- slight uptake, but below blood pool (mediastinum)
3- uptake above mediastinal, but below or equal to uptake in the liver
4- uptake slightly to moderately higher than liver
5- markedly increased uptake or any new lesion
Status at transplantation / infusion:
What was the disease status?
Disease untreated– Go to question 285
PIF res - Primary induction failure – resistant: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with stable or progressive disease on treatment. – Go to question 284
PIF sen / PR1 - Primary induction failure – sensitive: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with partial remission on treatment. – Go to question 284
PIF unk - Primary induction failure – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
CR1 - 1st complete remission: no bone marrow or extramedullary relapse prior to transplant– Go to question 284
CR2 - 2nd complete remission– Go to question 284
CR3+ - 3rd or subsequent complete remission– Go to question 284
REL1 unt - 1st relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL1 res - 1st relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL1 sen - 1st relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission was achieved, classify as CR2) – Go to question 284
REL1 unk - 1st relapse – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
REL2 unt - 2nd relapse – untreated: includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL2 res - 2nd relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL2 sen - 2nd relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)– Go to question 284
REL2 unk - 2nd relapse – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
REL3+ unt - 3rd or subsequent relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL3+ res - 3rd or subsequent relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL3+ sen - 3rd or subsequent relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)– Go to question 284
REL3+ unk - 3rd relapse or greater – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
Total number of lines of therapy received: (at any time between diagnosis and HCT / infusion)
1 line
2 lines
3+ lines
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
Specify the multiple myeloma/plasma cell disorder (PCD) classification:
Multiple myeloma-lgG (181) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-lgA (182) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-lgD (183) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-lgE (184) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-lgM (not Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia) (185) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-light chain only (186) - Go to questions 289
Multiple myeloma-non-secretory (187) - Go to questions 290
Plasma cell leukemia (172) - Go to question 295
Solitary plasmacytoma (no evidence of myeloma) (175) - Go to question 295
Amyloidosis (174) - Go to question 295
Osteosclerotic myeloma / POEMS syndrome (176) - Go to questions 295
Light chain deposition disease (177) - Go to questions 295
Other plasma cell disorder (179) - Go to question 288
Specify other plasma cell disorder: _____________________________ - Go to question 295
Light chain
kappa
lambda
What was the Durie-Salmon staging (at diagnosis)?
Stage I (All of the following: Hgb > 10g/dL; serum calcium normal or <10.5 mg/dL; bone x-ray normal bone structure (scale 0), or solitary bone plasmacytoma only; low M-component production rates IgG < 5g/dL, IgA < 3g/dL; urine light chain M-component on electrophoresis <4g/24h) – Go to questions 291
Stage II (Fitting neither Stage I or Stage III) – Go to questions 291
Stage III (One of more of the following: Hgb < 8.5 g/dL; serum calcium > 12 mg/dL; advanced lytic bone lesions (scale 3); high M-component production rates IgG >7g/dL, IgA > 5g/dL; Bence Jones protein >12g/24h) – Go to questions 291
Unknown – Go to questions 292
What was the Durie-Salmon sub classification (at diagnosis)?
A - relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine < 2.0 mg/dL)
B - abnormal renal function (serum creatinine ≥ 2.0 mg/dL)
I.S.S.:
Serum β2-microglobulin: ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ ___ μg/dL
mg/L
nmol/L
Serum albumin: ___ ___ ● ___ g/dL
g/L
Stage
1 (β2-mic < 3.5, S. albumin ≥ 3.5)
2 (not fitting stage 1 or 3)
3 (β2-mic ≥ 5.5; S. albumin —)
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
Yes – Go to questions 296
No – Go to question 317
Unknown – Go to question 317
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 297
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 317
No abnormalities – Go to question 317
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Trisomy
+3
Yes
No
+5
Yes
No
+7
Yes
No
+9
Yes
No
+11
Yes
No
+15
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(4;14)
Yes
No
t(6;14)
Yes
No
t(11;14)
Yes
No
t(14;16)
Yes
No
t(14;20)
Yes
No
Deletion
del (13)/13q-
Yes
No
del (17)/17p-
Yes
No
Other
Hyperdiploid (>50)
Yes
No
Hypodiploid (<46)
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1q
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1p
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes
No
Specify other abnormality:______________________________________________
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
Stringent complete remission (sCR). - CR as defined, plus: normal free light chain ratio, and absence of clonal cells in the bone marrow by immunohistochemistry or immunofluorescence (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). (Presence and/or absence of clonal cells is based upon the κ/λ ratio. An abnormal κ/λ ratio by immunohistochemistry and/or immunofluorescence requires a minimum of 100 plasma cells for analysis. An abnormal ratio reflecting the presence of an abnormal clone is κ/λ of > 4:1 or < 1:2.) sCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy sCR requirements. - Go to question 318
Complete remission (CR) — negative immunofixation on serum and urine samples, and disappearance of any soft tissue plasmacytomas, and < 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). CR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy CR requirements. - Go to question 318
Near complete remission (nCR) — serum and urine M-protein detectable by immunoelectrophoresis (IFE), but not on electrophoresis (negative SPEP & UPEP); < 5% plasma cells in bone marrow. nCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the initiation of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy nCR requirements. - Go to question 318
Very good partial remission (VGPR ) — serum and urine M-protein detectable by immunofixation but not on electrophoresis, or ≥ 90% reduction in serum M-protein and urine M-protein level < 100 mg/24 hours. VGPR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy VGPR requirements. - Go to question 318
Partial remission (PR) — ≥ 50% reduction in serum M-protein, and reduction in 24-hour urinary M-protein by ≥ 90% or to < 200 mg/24 hours. If the serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable (i.e., do not meet any of the following criteria: • serum M-protein ≥ 1 g/dL. Urine M-protein ≥ 200 mg/24 hours • serum free light chain assay shows involved level ≥ 10 mg/dL, provided serum free light chain ratio is abnormal), a ≥ 50% decrease in the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels is required in place of the M-protein criteria. If serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable, and serum free light assay is also unmeasurable, a ≥ 50% reduction in plasma cells is required in place of M-protein, provided the baseline bone marrow plasma cell percentage was ≥ 30%. In addition to the above listed criteria, a ≥ 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytomas is also required, if present at baseline. PR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy PR requirements. - Go to question 318
Stable disease (SD) — not meeting the criteria for CR, VGPR, PR or PD. SD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy SD requirements. - Go to question 318
Progressive disease (PD) — requires any one or more of the following: Increase of ≥ 25% from baseline in: serum M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 0.5 g/dL) (for progressive disease, serum M-component increases of ≥ 1 g/dL are sufficient to define relapse if the starting M-component is ≥ 5 g/dL). Urine M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 200 mg/24 hours) for recipients without measurable serum and urine M-protein levels: the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels (absolute increase > 10 mg/dL). Bone marrow plasma cell percentage (absolute percentage ≥ 10%) (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) definite development of new bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas, or definite increase in the size of any existing bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas. Development of hypercalcemia (corrected serum calcium > 11.5 mg/dL or 2.65 mmol) that can be attributed solely to the plasma cell proliferative disorder PD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as disease progression, and/or the institution of any new therapy - Go to question 318
Relapse from CR (Rel) (untreated) — requires one or more of the following: reappearance of serum or urine M-protein by immunofixation or electrophoresis development of ≥ 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) appearance of any other sign of progression (e.g., new plasmacytoma, lytic bone lesion, hypercalcemia) Rel requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as relapse, and/or the institution of any new therapy. – Go to question 318
Unknown – Go to signature line
Not applicable (Amyloidosis with no evidence of myeloma) – Go to signature line
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the solid tumor classification:
Breast cancer (250)
Lung, small cell (202)
Lung, non-small cell (203)
Lung, not otherwise specified (230)
Germ cell tumor, extragonadal (225)
Testicular (210)
Ovarian (epithelial) (214)
Bone sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (273)
Ewing family tumors of bone (including PNET) (275)
Ewing family tumors, extraosseous (including PNET) (276)
Fibrosarcoma (244)
Hemangiosarcoma (246)
Leiomyosarcoma (242)
Liposarcoma (243)
Lymphangio sarcoma (247)
Neurogenic sarcoma (248)
Rhabdomyosarcoma (232)
Synovial sarcoma (245)
Soft tissue sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (274)
Central nervous system tumor, including CNS PNET (220)
Medulloblastoma (226)
Neuroblastoma (222)
Head / neck (201)
Mediastinal neoplasm (204)
Colorectal (228)
Gastric (229)
Pancreatic (206)
Hepatobiliary (207)
Prostate (209)
External genitalia (211)
Cervical (212)
Uterine (213)
Vaginal (215)
Melanoma (219)
Wilm tumor (221)
Retinoblastoma (223)
Thymoma (231)
Renal cell (208)
Other solid tumor (269) – Go to question 320
Solid tumor, not otherwise specified (200)
Specify other solid tumor: ______________________________- Go to signature line
Specify the severe aplastic anemia classification:
Acquired severe aplastic anemia, not otherwise specified (301)
Acquired SAA secondary to hepatitis (302)
Acquired SAA secondary to toxin / other drug (303)
Acquired amegakaryocytosis (not congenital) (304)
Acquired pure red cell aplasia (not congenital) (306)
Dyskeratosis congenita (307)
Other acquired cytopenic syndrome (309) – Go to question 322
Specify other acquired cytopenic syndrome: ________________________- Go to signature line
Specify the inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function classification:
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) (56)
Shwachman-Diamond (305)
Diamond-Blackfan anemia (pure red cell aplasia) (312)
Other constitutional anemia (319) – Go to question 324
Fanconi anemia (311) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease).
Sickle thalassemia (355)
Sickle cell disease (356)
Beta thalassemia major (357)
Other hemoglobinopathy (359) – Go to question 325
Specify other constitutional anemia: ____________________________________
Specify other hemoglobinopathy:_______________________________
- Go to signature line
Specify disorder of immune system classification:
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency / severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) (401)
Absence of T and B cells SCID (402)
Absence of T, normal B cell SCID (403)
Omenn syndrome (404)
Reticular dysgenesis (405)
Bare lymphocyte syndrome (406)
Other SCID (419) – Go to question 327
SCID, not otherwise specified (410)
Ataxia telangiectasia (451)
HIV infection (452)
DiGeorge anomaly (454)
Common variable immunodeficiency (457)
Leukocyte adhesion deficiencies, including GP180, CD-18, LFA and WBC adhesion deficiencies (459)
Kostmann agranulocytosis (congenital neutropenia) (460)
Neutrophil actin deficiency (461)
Cartilage-hair hypoplasia (462)
CD40 ligand deficiency (464)
Other immunodeficiencies (479) – Go to question 328
Immune deficiency, not otherwise specified (400)
Chediak-Higashi syndrome (456)
Griscelli syndrome type 2 (465)
Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome type 2 (466)
Chronic granulomatous disease (455)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (453)
X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome (458)
Specify other SCID: ____________________________- Go to signature line
Specify other immunodeficiency: ____________________________- Go to signature line
Specify inherited abnormalities of platelets classification:
Congenital amegakaryocytosis / congenital thrombocytopenia (501)
Glanzmann thrombasthenia (502)
Other inherited platelet abnormality (509) – Go to question 330
Specify other inherited platelet abnormality: __________________________- Go to signature line
Specify inherited disorders of metabolism classification:
Osteopetrosis (malignant infantile osteopetrosis) (521)
Leukodystrophies
Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) (542)
Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) (543)
Krabbe disease (globoid leukodystrophy) (544)
Lesch-Nyhan (HGPRT deficiency) (522)
Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (Batten disease) (523)
Mucopolysaccharidoses
Hurler syndrome (IH) (531)
Scheie syndrome (IS) (532)
Hunter syndrome (II) (533)
Sanfilippo (III) (534)
Morquio (IV) (535)
Maroteaux-Lamy (VI) (536)
β-glucuronidase deficiency (VII) (537)
Mucopolysaccharidosis (V) (538)
Mucopolysaccharidosis, not otherwise specified (530)
Mucolipidoses
Gaucher disease (541)
Niemann-Pick disease (545)
I-cell disease (546)
Wolman disease (547)
Glucose storage disease (548)
Mucolipidoses, not otherwise specified (540)
Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormalities
Aspartyl glucosaminidase (561)
Fucosidosis (562)
Mannosidosis (563)
Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormality, not otherwise specified (560)
Other inherited metabolic disorder (529) – Go to question 332
Inherited metabolic disorder, not otherwise specified (520)
Specify other inherited metabolic disorder: _______________________________- Go to signature line
Specify histiocytic disorder classification:
Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) (571)
Langerhans cell histiocytosis (histiocytosis-X) (572)
Hemophagocytosis (reactive or viral associated) (573)
Malignant histiocytosis (574)
Other histiocytic disorder (579) – Go to question 334
Histiocytic disorder, not otherwise specified (570)
Specify other histiocytic disorder: ____________________________________- Go to signature line
Specify autoimmune disease classification:
Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (603)
Psoriatic arthritis / psoriasis (604)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): systemic (Stills disease) (640)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): oligoarticular (641)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): polyarticular (642)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): other (643) Go to question 337
Other arthritis (633) – Go to question 336
Multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (602)
Connective tissue diseases
Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) (607)
Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) (605)
Sjögren syndrome (608)
Polymyositis / dermatomyositis (606)
Antiphospholipid syndrome (614)
Other connective tissue disease (634) – Go to question 338
Vasculitis
Wegener granulomatosis (610)
Classical polyarteritis nodosa (631)
Microscopic polyarteritis nodosa (632)
Churg-Strauss (635)
Giant cell arteritis (636)
Takayasu (637)
Behcet syndrome (638)
Overlap necrotizing arteritis (639)
Other vasculitis (611) – Go to question 339
Other neurological autoimmune diseases
Myasthenia gravis (601)
Other autoimmune neurological disorder (644) – Go to question 340
Hematological autoimmune diseases
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) (645)
Hemolytic anemia (646)
Evan syndrome (647)
Other autoimmune cytopenia (648) – Go to question 341
Bowel diseases
Crohn’s disease (649)
Ulcerative colitis (650)
Other autoimmune bowel disorder (651) – Go to question 342
Specify other arthritis:_________________________________
Specify other juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA):_________________________________
Specify other connective tissue disease:_________________________________
Specify other vasculitis:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune neurological disorder:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune cytopenia:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune bowel disorder:_________________________________
- Go to signature line
Specify other disease: _________________________________________
First Name: ____________________________________________________________________________
Last Name:
E-mail address:
Date: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
CIBMTR Form 2402 revision 2
(page
File Type | application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document |
File Title | 2400r4 |
Author | Robinette Aley |
File Modified | 0000-00-00 |
File Created | 2021-01-21 |